I bemused myself when investigating the balance sheet and counted pooling of liabilities twice. However I found interesting things in there. If anyone is open for discussion please add to it.
LDK took three adjustments,
A. Impairment loss of property78,170
B. Impairment loss on assets hold for sale 74,178
C. Impairment loss for goodwill and intangible assets 26,743
So I have some puzzles to solve for you guys:
PPE went down by 568,387M So what are they selling at $646M, if the property went down by only that much? The value of assets hold on sale was set at 646,965, but they took the impariment on it (A) apparently, so was it $721,143M prior to impairment? Going back to property reduction, the asset for sale was extracted from PPE, right? So both A and B should be reflected in this move.. This would leave an asset of $416M for sale.
If above is true, how on the liability portion they pooled $632M as associated with sale, however the borrowing has a reduction of $350M only. Rest is $350M as notes payable and trade bills (supplies another words) and other liabilities.
Any opinion on this, except it is pretty crafty.